Posted by Leo
on 9/14/2009, 1:39 pm
Why does Constantinople claim that its authorization supposedly granted by Canon 28 of the 4th Ecumenical Synod (Chalcedon) to ordain Bishops abroad is an exclusive grant, supplanting the former practice of, for instance, Alexandria ordaining Bishops for Nubia and Ethiopia (Abyssinia), Antioch ordaining Bishops for Mesopotamia, Persia, along the Silk Road, etc., Rome ordaining Bishops for Ireland, even Cappodocia ordaining Bishops for Georgia?
After all, FWIU one of the ideals of o/Orthodox canons is continuity, consistency, Fathers of all ages "speaking as if with a single mouth."
This is a fact question, not rhetorical. Anybody know?
Thanks,
Leo
Responses:
