Re: Disaster capitalism is what we've had since about 1980. Archived Message
Posted by Ken Waldron on March 15, 2019, 3:10 pm, in reply to "Re: Disaster capitalism is what we've had since about 1980."
yet the majority of the U.K. Is Tory/ukip? Can you have it both ways? You don't need to "have it both ways" The majority of the vote for Brexit were Tory / UKIP voters: i.e. that's the majority of the 51.9% who voted for it. Not the "majority of the U.K.": which looks like fairly obvious straw-manning. As to the extent, here's the breakdown by party. As you can see only Tories and UKIPers by a majority actually voted for Brexit. The Tories were not only the biggest party with 36.9% of the vote at the previous election, but as I've pointed out, demographically dominate the vote in the above fifty category (46% of all voters are over 50) i.e. those who voted for Brexit. UKIP took 12.6% So the known Tory/ UKIP total gives them 49.5% of the electoral vote. (- only 1% off an actual "majority of the U.K.") and the UKIP age demographic is like the Tories, those predominantly over fifty ( a whopping 71%) So when I say it was "...a Tory UKIP vote because that's in the main who voted for it .' its neither controversial nor difficult to understand. Of course if you want to pretend that it was the Tooting peoples front that "won Brexit for the workers", be my guest, but then you have to explain how it can be anything other than a Tory /Brexit vote when those two parties not only held near half the electoral vote and by majority were the only voters who actually supported Brexit, but also why the dominant Brexit vote came from the voting age demographic that Tories/ UKIP practically own.
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